• kenopsik@lemm.ee
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    1 year ago

    I think the connection is coming from the word “seizes”, which sounds non-consensual.

    • RudeGryphon@lemm.ee
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      1 year ago

      I could see that as an interpretation for sure. I’m not well versed enough in Hebrew to understand the original text and it’s context. But I think one could argue that “seize” here could be seen as persuing her romantically.

      Now please don’t take this as me defending any of this. I’m just trying to show how many different ways this may be interpreted which leads to how people take the Bible out of context or to extremes.

      • RudeGryphon@lemm.ee
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        1 year ago

        You’re correct. But in Christianity premarital sex is seen as a sin and whether or not its consensual they would most likely still see it as a act of violating a woman.